Does the same argument apply ceteris paribus to minimum wage regulations or is there any relevant difference? "If people want to get paid very little to work very hard, then why shouldn't the state let them?" seemingly works for both sweatshops and low wages more in general ("low" depending on context, since minimum wage regulations often extend also to job settings that wouldn't classify as sweatshops).
Does the same argument apply ceteris paribus to minimum wage regulations or is there any relevant difference? "If people want to get paid very little to work very hard, then why shouldn't the state let them?" seemingly works for both sweatshops and low wages more in general ("low" depending on context, since minimum wage regulations often extend also to job settings that wouldn't classify as sweatshops).